Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 02.07.2025 05:15
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
What is the dirtiest thing you have allowed your husband to do?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
See how the national debt grew to more than $36 trillion - The Washington Post
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.